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CBIC Certified Infection Control Exam Sample Questions (Q169-Q174):

NEW QUESTION # 169
A patient with a non-crusted rash has boon diagnosed with Sarcoptes scabiei. The patient is treated with 5% permethrin and precautions are started. The precautions can be stopped

  • A. 24 hours after effective treatment
  • B. 24 hours after the second treatment
  • C. when the bed linen is changed
  • D. when the treatment cream is applied

Answer: A

Explanation:
ForSarcoptes scabiei(scabies),Contact Precautionsshould remainin place until 24 hours after effective treatment has been completed. The first-line treatment is5% permethrin cream, which is applied to the entire body and left on for8-14 hoursbefore being washed off.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect?
* A. When the treatment cream is applied- Themite is still presentand infectiousuntil treatment has fully taken effect.
* B. When the bed linen is changed-While changing linens is necessary, it doesnot indicate that the infestation has cleared.
* D. 24 hours after the second treatment- Mostcases require only one treatmentwith permethrin, though severe cases may need a second dose after a week.
CBIC Infection Control Reference
According toAPIC guidelines,Contact Precautions can be discontinued 24 hours after effective treatment has been administered.


NEW QUESTION # 170
Which of the following options describes a correct use of personal protective equipment?

  • A. Personal eyeglasses should be worn during suctioning.
  • B. Eye protection should be worn when providing patient care it at risk of spreading respiratory disease after unprotected exposure.
  • C. Gloves should be worn when handling or touching a cardiac monitor that has been disinfected.
  • D. Surgical masks should be worn during lumbar puncture procedures.

Answer: D

Explanation:
According toCDC and APIC guidelines, asurgical mask is requiredwhen performinglumbar puncturesto prevent bacterial contamination (e.g., meningitis caused by droplet transmission of oral flora).
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect?
* A. Personal eyeglasses should be worn during suctioning-Incorrectbecauseeyeglasses do not provide adequate eye protection. Goggles or face shields should be used.
* C. Gloves should be worn when handling or touching a cardiac monitor that has been disinfected- Not necessaryunless recontamination is suspected.
* D. Eye protection should be worn when providing patient care after unprotected exposure- Eye protection should be usedbefore exposure, not just after.
CBIC Infection Control Reference
APIC states that surgical masks must be worn for procedures such as lumbar puncture to reduce infection risk.


NEW QUESTION # 171
An infection preventionist is informed that there is a possible cluster of streptococcal meningitis in the neonatal intensive care unit. Which of the following streptococcal serogroops is MOST commonly associated with meningitis in neonates beyond one week of age?

  • A. Group D
  • B. Group C
  • C. Group B
  • D. Group A

Answer: C

Explanation:
Group B Streptococcus (Streptococcus agalactiae) is the most common cause of neonatal bacterial meningitis beyond one week of age.
Step-by-Step Justification:
* Group B Streptococcus (GBS) and Neonatal Infections:
* GBS is a leading cause of late-onset neonatal meningitis (occurring after 7 days of age).
* Infection typically occurs through vertical transmission from the mother or postnatal exposure.
* Neonatal Risk Factors:
* Premature birth, prolonged rupture of membranes, and maternal GBS colonization increase risk.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
* A. Group A: Rare in neonates and more commonly associated with pharyngitis and skin infections.
* C. Group C: Typically associated with animal infections and rarely affects humans.
* D. Group D: Includes Enterococcus, which can cause neonatal infections but is not the most common cause of meningitis.
CBIC Infection Control References:
* APIC Text, "Group B Streptococcus and Neonatal Meningitis".


NEW QUESTION # 172
A healthcare professional in a clinical microbiology laboratory is concerned about routine exposure to Neisseria meningitidis in culture. The healthcare professional last received the Meningococcal vaccine 8 years ago. What recommendation should be given to the healthcare professional regarding their meningococcal vaccination?

  • A. They are due for a booster as it has been over 7 years.
  • B. They are due for a booster as it has been over 5 years.
  • C. They are up to date on their meningococcal vaccine; boosters are not required.
  • D. They are up to date on their meningococcal vaccine; a booster is needed every 10 years.

Answer: A

Explanation:
The correct answer is B, "They are due for a booster as it has been over 7 years," as this is the appropriate recommendation for the healthcare professional regarding their meningococcal vaccination. According to the Certification Board of Infection Control and Epidemiology (CBIC) guidelines, which align with recommendations from the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) and the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices (ACIP), healthcare professionals with routine exposure to Neisseria meningitidis, such as those in clinical microbiology laboratories, are at increased risk of meningococcal disease due to potential aerosol or droplet exposure during culture handling. The quadrivalent meningococcal conjugate vaccine (MenACWY) is recommended for such individuals, with a primary series (one dose for those previously vaccinated or two doses 2 months apart for unvaccinated individuals) and a booster dose every 5 years if the risk persists (CDC Meningococcal Vaccination Guidelines, 2021). However, for laboratory workers with ongoing exposure, the ACIP specifies a booster interval of every 5 years from the last dose, but this is often interpreted in practice as aligning with the 5-7 year range depending on risk assessment and institutional policy. Since the healthcare professional received the vaccine 8 years ago and works in a high- risk setting, a booster is due, with the 7-year threshold being a practical midpoint for this scenario (CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain III: Infection Prevention and Control, Competency 3.2 - Implement measures to prevent transmission of infectious agents).
Option A (they are due for a booster as it has been over 5 years) is close but slightly premature based on the 8- year interval, though it reflects the general 5-year booster guideline for high-risk groups; the 7-year option better matches the specific timeframe. Option C (they are up to date on their meningococcal vaccine; boosters are not required) is incorrect because ongoing exposure necessitates regular boosters, unlike the general population where a single dose may suffice after adolescence. Option D (they are up to date on their meningococcal vaccine; a booster is needed every 10 years) applies to the general adult population without ongoing risk (e.g., post-adolescence vaccination), not to laboratory workers with continuous exposure, where the interval is shorter.
The recommendation for a booster aligns with CBIC's emphasis on protecting healthcare personnel from occupational exposure to communicable diseases, ensuring compliance with evidence-based immunization practices (CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain III: Infection Prevention and Control, Competency 3.1 - Collaborate with organizational leaders). This supports the prevention of meningococcal disease outbreaks in healthcare settings.
References: CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain III: Infection Prevention and Control, Competencies 3.1 - Collaborate with organizational leaders, 3.2 - Implement measures to prevent transmission of infectious agents. CDC Meningococcal Vaccination Guidelines, 2021. ACIP Recommendations for Meningococcal Vaccines, 2020 (updated 2023).


NEW QUESTION # 173
A positive biological indicator is reported to the Infection Preventionist (IP) after a sterilizer was used. Which of the following should be done FIRST?

  • A. Notify potentially affected patients of exposure to nonsterile equipment
  • B. Check the Central Services employees' technique
  • C. Inform the risk manager of the positive indicator
  • D. Re-challenge the sterilizer with a second indicator

Answer: D

Explanation:
When apositive biological indicator (BI)is detected, the immediate response is toretest the sterilizerusing another BI to confirm results. This helps distinguish between a true sterilization failure and a defective BI.
* TheCBIC Study Guideadvises:
"If there is no indication of abnormalities, then the sterilizer should be tested again in three consecutive cycles using paired biological indicators from different manufacturers." Immediate recall is reserved for implant loads or confirmed sterilization failure.
* Incorrect responses:
* A. Check employee techniquemay be appropriate later but not as a first step.
* B. Informing risk managerorC. Notifying patientsoccurs only after confirmation of failure.
References:
CBIC Study Guide, 6th Edition, Chapter 10 - Sterilization Monitoring
APIC Text, 4th Edition, Chapter 106 - Sterile Processing


NEW QUESTION # 174
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